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Post by sh3lby on Apr 3, 2006 16:17:58 GMT -4
Short Bus / Flame On people. I just emailed the WAKA rep about what happened on our game. Not that it would of changed the outcome of the game but you know how I am with rules =p
Basically this weekend we had a ball go into left field and was missed by a fielder but hit her foot and went FLYING into foul territory. To my understanding that's the same as a overthrow - one base rule. But not 100% sure so will know more when I get a response.
that is all for now
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Post by Scottyg on Apr 3, 2006 16:25:35 GMT -4
lol noted, if you cant field the ball, boot it out of bounds to avoid the home run.
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Post by sh3lby on Apr 3, 2006 16:32:34 GMT -4
hehehe =) I think it's known when someone actually kicks it outta bounce and when it was blatenly (sp?) an error like happened with us =p
Stop finding the loop holes =)
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anwilli
Captain
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Post by anwilli on Apr 4, 2006 10:10:41 GMT -4
lol noted, if you cant field the ball, boot it out of bounds to avoid the home run. ha ha ha ha... great loop hole... we shoulda done that to avoid a couple homeruns by Wackos this weekend....
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Dagger
Captain
Go Wackos Go!
Posts: 1,547
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Post by Dagger on Apr 4, 2006 11:36:01 GMT -4
No word yet on what the correct call should have been?
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Post by sh3lby on Apr 4, 2006 12:33:29 GMT -4
Just got back word. From what I got back / understand.. yes. Our call was right. it was one base. if it's a deliberate kick / deflection into foul then no. but since it was by accident then the one base rule applies.
Taylor, please confirm.. I fwd'd you the three emails... She agree'd with this statement
Basically, the effect was that the fielder punted the ball into foul territory when attempting to catch it. So it sounds like it comes down to whether that's considered a "deflection" or not in regards to the one-base-on-an-overthrow rule. In this case, we ruled it as such. It gets tricky because a fielder could intentionally kick the ball foul to save giving up a home run (in this case it was an accident).
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Post by aspey on Apr 4, 2006 13:00:19 GMT -4
She didn't really say much as to what happens if it's deliberate. The rules don't state anything in regards to a fielder intentionally booting a ball (only runners/kickers). So we can basically set precedence now...
I would say that intentionally kicking it foul means the one-base-rule doesn't apply and the runners can keep going. If it's an accident, then the rule DOES apply. It would be up to the head ref to decide whether it was accidental or intentional.
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Post by sh3lby on Apr 4, 2006 13:26:07 GMT -4
excellent. Thanks oh mighty president =)
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Post by kickballplaya on Apr 5, 2006 14:31:35 GMT -4
That's not an overthrow. It's only an overthrow if a player throws the ball to a base person and they do not catch it etc.
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Post by kickballplaya on Apr 5, 2006 14:33:51 GMT -4
Oops, should have read all posts before speaking. Who said it's an overthrow??
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Post by aspey on Apr 5, 2006 15:04:09 GMT -4
You know what, I think playa's right (mostly). Having re-read the rule (which i probably should have done in the first place)...
10.07a) an overthrow is a ball thrown, kicked, or deflected into foul territory while making a play toward a player or base
So he's right in that in this case, the runners should have been able to keep running. An accidental deflection while attempting to catch the ball does not constitute making a play toward a player/base. He's wrong in that it's not just throws that count, but also deflections or kicks provided they're towards a player/base.
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Post by Scottyg on Apr 5, 2006 15:23:58 GMT -4
now we get to argue over what constitutes "towards a player/base"
Everyone catch the ball and we wont have any problems.
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anwilli
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Post by anwilli on Apr 5, 2006 15:29:52 GMT -4
Everyone catch the ball and we wont have any problems. Whoa, all-star... that's asking a lot from the Kick This girls... as you could tell on the field last week.
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Dagger
Captain
Go Wackos Go!
Posts: 1,547
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Post by Dagger on Apr 5, 2006 15:55:23 GMT -4
So my first call was the right call! That is $$$...
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Post by Rodeo Jock on Apr 11, 2006 15:46:34 GMT -4
So my first call was the right call! That is $$$... Not to go back to this, but I saw something in the rules that clarifies it. The rule that Taylor stated was correct, 10.07a doesn't actually cover this error complete, but 10.07b does. Rule 10.07b: A runner may advance only one base beyond the base the runner is on or running toward when the ball travels into foul territory. It doesn't say whether the ball entered foul territory deliberately or accidentally, it just says when it does. Therefore the call that was made the day of the game (reversing the score and sending the runners back to a +1 base status) was the correct call.
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